UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR EXAMINATIONS

2025

UPSC 2025 PRELIMS GS ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

1. Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer-

(c) All the three

All three vehicle types are categorized as alternative powertrain vehicles, meaning they do not rely on traditional internal combustion engines powered by fossil fuels.
• Full Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs): Operate solely on electricity stored in batteries.
• Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCEVs): Use hydrogen fuel cells to generate electricity.
• Fuel Cell-Electric Hybrid Vehicles: Combine hydrogen fuel cells with battery systems for power.
Each of them supports the transition away from fossil fuels and contributes to decarbonization goals.

Sources-

• NITI Aayog & RMI: “India’s Electric Mobility Transformation”
• International Energy Agency (IEA): Global EV Outlook
• U.S. Department of Energy – Alternative Fuels Data Center

2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(d) None

• Statement I – Incorrect: Only specific types of UAVs like VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) drones can perform vertical landing. Fixed-wing UAVs usually require runways.
• Statement II – Incorrect: Only multi-rotor UAVs can hover automatically. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover.
• Statement III – Incorrect: UAVs can be powered by batteries, fuel cells, or combustion engines depending on design and usage. Hence, none of the statements is correct.

Sources-

• DRDO – UAV Classification
• FAA (USA) – UAV Types and Capabilities
• ISRO & Ministry of Civil Aviation – Drone Guidelines

3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer-

(c) Only three

• Cathode materials in most electric vehicle (EV) lithium-ion batteries include Cobalt, Nickel, and Lithium. These are essential for energy density and battery stability.
• Graphite, however, is primarily used in the anode (not cathode) of EV batteries. Therefore, only three of the four listed elements are cathode materials.

Sources-

• International Energy Agency (IEA) – Global EV Outlook
• Ministry of Mines – Critical Minerals Strategy 2023
• World Bank – Minerals for Climate Action Report
• NITI Aayog – Battery Manufacturing & Supply Chain Reports

4. Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(c) All the three

• Cigarette butts contain cellulose acetate (a plastic).
• Eyeglass lenses are often made of plastic resins like polycarbonate.
• Car tyres include synthetic rubber and plastic polymers.

Sources-

• UNEP Plastic Pollution Reports
• BIS Tyre Material Guidelines
• WHO – Toxicology of Cigarette Waste

5. Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(b) Only two

• Ethanol – Yes: Syngas (H₂ + CO) from coal gasification can be catalytically converted to ethanol via Fischer–Tropsch or related processes.
• Urea – Yes: Syngas can produce ammonia, which combines with CO₂ to form urea.
• Nitroglycerine – No direct link: Nitroglycerine is made from glycerol and nitric acid, not from coal gasification-derived feedstocks. Its connection is too indirect for inclusion. Hence, only two substances can be reasonably produced from coal gasification.

Sources-

• Ministry of Coal – Underground Coal Gasification Report
• CSIR – Fuel Research Papers
• Indian Journal of Chemical Technology

6. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer-

(b) These are explosives in military weapons

CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are high-energy explosives developed for defense purposes. They are not fuels but are used in warheads and missile payloads.

Sources-

• DRDO – High Energy Materials
• Jane’s Defence Weekly
• Defence Research Journal India

7. Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(c) I and III only

• Statement I is correct: The Majorana 1 chip is a step toward developing quantum computers using topological qubits.
• Statement II is incorrect: The chip is developed by Microsoft, not AWS.
• Statement III is correct: Deep learning is a specialized subset of machine learning that uses neural networks with many layers.

Sources-

• Microsoft Research Blog (2023) – “Advancing Topological Qubits”
• NPTEL – AI & Deep Learning Courses
• Stanford University AI Glossary

8. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(d) I, II and III

• Statement I is correct: Monoclonal antibodies are synthetic (man-made) proteins created to mimic the immune system’s ability to fight pathogens.
• Statement II is correct: They are designed to bind to specific antigens, thereby triggering an immune response or blocking harmful action.
• Statement III is correct: Monoclonal antibodies have been used in experimental treatment for Nipah virus and other viral infections (e.g., Ebola, COVID-19).

Sources-

• WHO – Monoclonal Antibody Therapeutics
• CDC – Emerging Infectious Diseases
• Nature – Use of mAbs in Nipah Virus Management

9. Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(d) None

• Statement I – Incorrect: Marine viruses are abundant in ocean waters and play a vital role in regulating marine microbial ecosystems.
• Statement II – Incorrect: Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria, a well-established fact in microbiology.
• Statement III – Incorrect: Viruses do change host transcriptional activity to replicate using the host's cellular machinery. Hence, none of the three statements are correct.

Sources-

• Nature Reviews Microbiology – Marine Virology
• NIH – Bacteriophage Research
• Molecular Biology of the Cell – Alberts et al.

10. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• Statement II is correct: Activated carbon has a very high surface area (up to 3000 m²/g) and excellent adsorptive capacity, especially for heavy metals and organic pollutants.
• Statement III is also correct: Activated carbon can be produced from agricultural and industrial waste, such as coconut shells, sawdust, etc., through pyrolysis or chemical activation.
• Both of these explain why activated carbon is effective in pollution control.

Sources-

• ScienceDirect – Activated Carbon Properties
• NITI Aayog Waste to Wealth Report
• IUPAC Journal of Environmental Chemistry

11. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• Statement I is correct: The cement industry contributes over 7% of global CO₂ emissions, mainly from clinker production and fossil fuel combustion.
• Statement II is correct: Silica-bearing clay (e.g., shale) is blended with limestone to provide silica and alumina needed for clinker.
• Statement III is correct: Calcination process converts CaCO₃ (limestone) into CaO (lime), releasing CO₂ — a major emission source.

Sources-

• Both II and III directly contribute to the emissions, and hence explain Statement I.• IEA – Cement Technology Roadmap
• UNEP – Greening the Cement Industry
• NITI Aayog – Low Carbon Cement Pathways

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.
Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• Statement I – Correct: India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, as confirmed in official COP28 documentation.
• Statement II – Correct: India possibly refrained because the declaration, while non-binding, may signal a voluntary pathway toward health sector decarbonization, influencing domestic commitments.
• Statement III – Incorrect: Decarbonization strengthens resilience of health systems by improving energy efficiency, air quality, and reducing vulnerabilities. Thus, only Statement II is correct, and it helps explain Statement I.

Sources-

• UNFCCC COP28 Official Records
• WHO – COP28 Health and Climate Declaration Brief
• The Lancet – Health Sector and Climate Change Reports

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• Statement I – Correct: Multiple scientific studies and data from NASA confirm that Earth’s rotational axis and pole are gradually shifting due to mass redistribution.
• Statement II – Correct but not explanatory: Solar flares and CMEs do release vast energy affecting satellites and communication, but they do not cause Earth's axis to shift.
• Statement III – Correct and explanatory: Melting polar ice redistributes mass toward the equator, which leads to polar drift and a measurable change in Earth's spin and axis. Hence, both II and III are factually correct, but only III explains Statement I.

Sources-

• NASA – Earth’s Polar Motion & Climate Link
• Nature Journal – “Ice Melting Linked to Earth’s Axis Shift”
• NOAA – Space Weather and CMEs

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• Statement I is correct: Article 6 is one of the most debated parts of the Paris Agreement due to its link with climate finance, carbon trading, and cooperation mechanisms.
• Statement II is correct: Article 6 establishes the framework for international carbon markets, allowing countries to trade emission reductions.
• Statement III is also correct: Article 6 also includes non-market approaches (Article 6.8) to promote climate cooperation, technology sharing, and sustainable development.
• Therefore, both II and III accurately explain why Article 6 is so frequently discussed.

Sources-

• UNFCCC – Article 6 Summary
• Paris Agreement Official Text
• UNEP Emissions Gap Reports

15. Which one of the following launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific?

(a) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer-

(a) Asian Development Bank (ADB)

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific to promote investments in nature-based solutions. This initiative supports biodiversity, climate adaptation, and sustainable development by connecting financial mechanisms with conservation projects.

Sources-

• ADB Official Press Release (2023)
• UNDP Nature-Based Solutions Asia-Pacific Report
• World Economic Forum – Nature Finance Initiatives

16. With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only (b) III only (c) I, II and III (d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer-

(c) I, II and III

• Statement I is correct: Direct Air Capture (DAC) removes CO₂ directly from ambient air and is considered a viable carbon sequestration technique.
• Statement II is correct: Captured CO₂ can be reused in industrial processes, such as polymer and plastic production, and also for carbonation in food/beverages.
• Statement III is correct: In aviation, DAC-derived CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen to produce synthetic fuels (e-fuels), reducing lifecycle emissions.

Sources-

• IEA – Direct Air Capture Technology Report
• IPCC AR6 Report
• World Resources Institute – DAC Applications

17. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) I and III (c) II only (d) II and III(d) II and III

Answer-

• Statement I is incorrect: The Peacock Tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is an arachnid, not a crustacean, and it is carnivorous, preying on insects.
• Statement II is correct: It is endemic to a small forest area in Andhra Pradesh, specifically in degraded dry deciduous forest near Gooty, making its range extremely limited.
• Statement III is correct: It is an arboreal (tree-dwelling) spider, known for living in tree hollows.

Sources-

• IUCN Red List – Poecilotheria metallica
• Zoological Survey of India
• WWF India – Species Fact Sheet

18. Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III only (b) II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(c) II and III only

• Statement I is incorrect: India’s CO₂ emissions per capita are around 1.9 to 2.5 metric tonnes (as per World Bank & IEA), which is higher than 0.5 t/capita.
• Statement II is correct: India is the second-largest emitter in the Asia-Pacific, after China, in terms of emissions from fuel combustion.
• Statement III is correct: The power generation sector (electricity and heat production) is India’s largest contributor to CO₂ emissions.

Sources-

• IEA – CO₂ Emissions Statistics 2023
• World Bank – CO₂ Emissions per Capita
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) – India State of Environment Report

19. Consider the following pairs:

Plant – Description
I. Cassava : Woody shrub
II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous
IV. Mint : Annual shrub
V. Papaya : Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five

Answer-

(b) Only three

• Cassava – Correct : A woody shrub, cultivated for its starchy roots.
• Ginger – Correct : A herb with pseudostem, formed from rolled leaf bases.
• Malabar spinach – Correct : A herbaceous vine, commonly grown in tropical regions.
• Mint – Incorrect : It is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub.
• Papaya – Incorrect : Though tree-like, it is botanically considered a large herb, not strictly a woody shrub. Hence, only three pairs are correctly matched.

Sources-

• ICAR – Horticulture Crop Factsheets
• FAO – Plant Classification Reports
• NCBI Taxonomy Database

20. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II only (c) I and III (d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer-

(b) II only• Statement I is incorrect: While rainforests are crucial, oceans produce more oxygen through phytoplankton, cyanobacteria, and algae.
• Statement II is correct: Marine photosynthetic organisms contribute approximately 50–80% of the world’s oxygen supply.
• Statement III is incorrect: Atmospheric air contains much more free oxygen (about 21%) than well-oxygenated water, which holds far less oxygen (typically 8–10 mg/L).

Sources-

• NOAA – Ocean Facts on Oxygen Production
• NASA Earth Observatory
• IPCC AR6 Report – Ocean & Climate Systems

21. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(c) Both I and II

• Statement I is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy deeply respected Indian philosophical traditions like the Upanishads and Vedanta, and drew from them in his reformist ideology.
• Statement II is correct: He was a strong advocate of rationalism, scientific temper, and social equality. He opposed practices like Sati, caste discrimination, and supported women’s rights and education.

Sources-

• Bipin Chandra – Modern India
• NCERT Class XII – Themes in Indian History
• IGNOU – Social Reform Movements in 19th Century India

22. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer-

(c) Only three

• I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth – Correct - Core part of the Non-Cooperation Programme.
• II. Observance of strict non-violence – Correct - Gandhiji insisted on strict adherence to non-violence as a principle of the movement.
• III. Retention of titles and honours – Incorrect. The programme called for giving up government titles and honours, not retaining them.
• IV. Establishment of Panchayats – Correct - Local Panchayats were promoted as alternatives to British courts.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XII – Modern India
• Bipin Chandra – India’s Struggle for Independence
• Gandhi’s Writings & INC Congress Resolutions (1920 Nagpur Session)

23. The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was:

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer-

(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

The Araghatta was a traditional irrigation device used in ancient and medieval India, consisting of a large wheel with earthen pots (gharas) attached to its spokes. The wheel was turned manually or using animals, and as it rotated, the pots would scoop water from a well and pour it into irrigation channels.

Sources-

• NCERT Class VI – Our Past – I
• Karnataka State Board History Textbook
• Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) Resources

24. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?

(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman

Answer-

(a) Mahendravarman

IMahendravarman I, a Pallava ruler (7th century CE), was known for his literary and artistic talents. He assumed titles like ‘Mattavilasa’ (Drunken Reveler), ‘Vichitrachitta’ (Curious Mind), and ‘Gunabhara’ (Possessor of Virtues). He authored the Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana, showcasing his intellectual pursuits.

Sources-

• South Indian Inscriptions Vol. 1 – ASI
• Tamil Nadu State Board Class XI History
• IGNOU – Cultural History of India

25. Fa-Hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of:

(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta

Answer-

(b) Chandragupta II

Fa-Hien, the famous Chinese Buddhist monk and traveler, visited India during the early 5th century CE, specifically during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty. He travelled through northern India and documented Buddhist practices, governance, and society in his travelogue.

Sources-

• NCERT Class VI – Our Past – I
• R.S. Sharma – India’s Ancient Past
• IGNOU – Ancient Indian History & Culture

26. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola)
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer-

(c) Rajendra I (Chola)

Rajendra Chola I, son of Rajaraja Chola I, led the famous naval expedition against the Srivijaya Empire in the early 11th century CE. This campaign extended Chola influence across Southeast Asia and established Chola naval supremacy in the Indian Ocean. It is one of the earliest recorded large-scale overseas expeditions by an Indian ruler.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XI – Themes in World History
• Epigraphia Indica – Chola Inscriptions
• South Indian Inscriptions Vol. IX – ASI

27. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BCE), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region – River Flowing in the Region
I. Asmaka : Godavari
II. Kamboja : Vipas
III. Avanti : Mahanadi
IV. Kosala : Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer-

(b) Only two

• Asmaka – Godavari : Correct. Asmaka was located in the Deccan, near the Godavari river valley.
• Kamboja – Vipas : Incorrect. Kamboja was in northwest India, but the Vipas (Beas) river lies more centrally in Punjab; it does not flow through Kamboja.
• Avanti – Mahanadi : Incorrect. Avanti was centered in Malwa (Ujjain region), associated with the Narmada, not Mahanadi, which flows in eastern India. • Kosala – Sarayu : Correct. Kosala (modern eastern Uttar Pradesh) was situated along the Sarayu river. Hence, only two pairs (I and IV) are correctly matched.

Sources

• NCERT Class XII – Themes in Indian History
• R.S. Sharma – Ancient India
• Atlas of Ancient Indian History – Irfan Habib & Dilip K. Chakrabarti

28. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:

(a) Delhi (b) Gwalior (c) Ujjain (d) Lahore

Answer-

(d) Lahore

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar, a prominent Hindustani classical musician and reformer, established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in 1901 in Lahore (then part of British India). The institution was a pioneering effort to institutionalize classical music education outside of the traditional gharana system.• Sangeet Natak Akademi Archives

Sources-

• NCERT Class XI – An Introduction to Indian Art
• IGNCA – Vishnu Digambar Paluskar Biography

29. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:

(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration

Answer-

(b) district-level administration

• Pradeshikas, Rajukas, and Yuktas are mentioned in Ashokan edicts as officials responsible for administrative, judicial, and revenue-related duties.
• These officers functioned primarily at the district level, overseeing local governance, implementation of royal edicts, and monitoring public welfare.
• Rajukas had powers of punishment and rewards; Yuktas maintained records and accounts; Pradeshikas carried out inspections.

Sources-

• NCERT Class VI – Our Past – I
• Inscriptions: Ashoka’s Rock Edict VI & XIII
• R.S. Sharma – Ancient India

30. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(c) Both I and II

• Statement I is correct: At the Nagpur session of Congress in 1920, the objective of attaining Swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means was formally adopted.
• Statement II is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement was intended to be implemented in phases, and if Swaraj was not achieved within a year, the next phase (civil disobedience and tax refusal) was to be launched in response to government repression.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XII – Modern India
• Bipin Chandra – India’s Struggle for Independence
• Congress Resolutions (1920 Nagpur Session)

31. With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer-

(b) Only two

• Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) under SEBI regulations include categories such as Hedge Funds and Venture Capital Funds.
• Bonds and Stocks are considered conventional investment instruments and fall under regular capital markets, not AIFs.
• Therefore, only II (Hedge Funds) and IV (Venture Capital) qualify as AIFs.

Sources-

• SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012
• Ramesh Singh – Indian Economy
• NSE Investor Education

32. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III, IV and V (d) I, II and V

Answer-

(a) I and II only

• Statement I – Correct: The RBI earns income through Open Market Operations (OMO) — buying and selling government bonds which generate interest income.
• Statement II – Correct: The RBI buys and sells foreign currency in the forex market to stabilize the rupee, and earns through valuation gains and interest on foreign reserves.
• Statement III – Incorrect: RBI does not manage pension funds for revenue purposes. That role lies with bodies like PFRDA. • Statement IV – Incorrect: RBI does not lend to private companies; it lends to banks and the government.
• Statement V – Incorrect: Printing and distributing currency is a cost to the RBI, not a revenue source.

Sources-

• RBI Annual Report
• Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh
• RBI FAQs and Monetary Policy Handbook

33. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization – Some of its functions – It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement – Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence – Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management – Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(b) Only two

• Row I – Incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, but it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Row II – Correct: The DRI enforces customs law and works under the Department of Revenue, MoF.
• Row III – Correct: The DG of Systems and Data Management operates under the CBDT, Department of Revenue, and works on data analytics for compliance and enforcement.

Sources-

• Ministry of Finance – Official Website
• PIB Releases on ED, DRI, and DG Systems
• SEAC (Staffing for Economic Agencies Committee) Reports

34. Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(b) II only

• Statement I is incorrect: The mandate to submit Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reports (BRSR) comes from SEBI, not the Reserve Bank of India. SEBI requires the top 1000 listed entities (by market capitalization) to file BRSRs.
• Statement II is correct: BRSRs are focused on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) metrics and contain non-financial disclosures related to sustainability and social responsibility.

Sources-

• SEBI Circular on BRSR (May 2021)
• Ministry of Corporate Affairs – ESG Framework
• NSE & BSE Guidelines for Listed Companies

35. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer-

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

• Statement I is incorrect: Income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing is not exempt from tax under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act. Only income from agriculture or agricultural operations qualifies for full exemption.
• Statement II is correct: Rural agricultural land (as per defined criteria based on population and distance from municipality) is not treated as a capital asset, and hence, no capital gains tax is levied on its sale.

Sources-

• Income Tax Act, 1961 – Section 10(1) and Section 2(14)
• Income Tax Department FAQs
• Taxmann – Income from Agriculture and Capital Gains

36. Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(c) I and III only

• Statement I is correct: India formally joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023, a US-led alliance to secure global critical mineral supply chains.
• Statement II is incorrect: India is not resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals. It is heavily import-dependent for many (e.g., lithium, cobalt, nickel).
• Statement III is correct: In 2023, the MMDR Act, 1957 was amended, giving the Central Government exclusive powers to auction mining leases for 24 notified critical minerals.

Sources-

• Ministry of Mines – 2023 Amendment Press Release
• US Department of State – MSP Membership Updates
• PIB – List of Critical Minerals & India’s Strategy Document

37. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• Statement I is correct: Bondholders face lower risk compared to stockholders because their returns are fixed and they are prioritized during liquidation.
• Statement II is correct: Bondholders are creditors/lenders, while stockholders are owners/shareholders of the company.
• Statement III is correct: In case of bankruptcy or liquidation, bondholders are repaid before stockholders.
• Both II and III explain why bondholders carry less risk than stockholders.

Sources-

• Ramesh Singh – Indian Economy
• NSE & SEBI Investor Education Portals
• Investopedia – Bonds vs. Stocks

38. Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(a) I and II only

• Statement I is correct: As of 2023, India has become the largest equity derivatives market globally, especially in options contracts by volume (NSE).
• Statement II is correct: India’s stock market surpassed Hong Kong’s in market capitalization briefly in early 2024, becoming the 4th largest globally.
• Statement III is incorrect: SEBI is the regulatory authority that actively warns small investors against high-risk instruments like options and takes action against unregistered advisors.

Sources-

• SEBI Circulars & Investor Awareness Bulletins
• NSE Market Reports 2023–24
• Bloomberg & Reuters (Jan 2024 – India vs. HK Market Cap)

39. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• Statement I is correct: A circular economy lowers greenhouse gas emissions by reducing extraction, production, and landfill emissions.
• Statement II is correct: It minimizes the use of virgin raw materials through reuse, recycling, and resource efficiency.
• Statement III is correct: It promotes process optimization and waste minimization during manufacturing.
• Both II and III directly contribute to reduced emissions, hence both explain Statement I.

Sources-

• UNEP – Circular Economy & Climate Impact Report
• Ellen MacArthur Foundation – Circular Economy Principles
• NITI Aayog – Strategy on Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy

40. Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(a) I and II only

• Statement I is correct: Capital receipts either create liabilities (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment of public enterprises).
• Statement II is correct: Borrowings (increase liability) and disinvestment (reduces government asset holdings) are both classified as capital receipts.
• Statement III is incorrect: Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a liability. It actually generates income for the government and does not increase its liabilities.

Sources-

• Indian Economy – Ramesh Singh
• NCERT Class XII – Macroeconomics
• Union Budget Documents – Government of India

41. Consider the following countries:

I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

(a) Only three (b) Only four (c) Only five (d) All the six

Answer-

(b) Only four

• Bulgaria – Correct- NATO member since 2004.
• Croatia – Correct- Joined NATO in 2009.
• North Macedonia – Correct- Became a NATO member in 2020.
• Sweden – Correct- Officially joined NATO in March 2024.
• Austria – Incorrect- Maintains military neutrality, not a NATO member.
• Serbia – Incorrect- Also militarily neutral, has a history of conflict with NATO and has not joined. Hence, 4 out of the 6 countries listed are NATO members.

Sources-

• NATO Official Website – www.nato.int
• NATO Membership Updates – 2024
• Ministry of External Affairs, India – NATO and Europe Relations

42. Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) Only five

Answer-

(c) Only four

• Bolivia – Correct- The Andes run prominently through western Bolivia.
• Colombia – Correct- The Andes split into three branches upon entering Colombia.
• Ecuador – Correct- The Andes form the spine of the country.
• Venezuela – Correct- (Debatable): The Andean extension into Venezuela (Cordillera de Mérida) is geologically part of the Andes but often treated separately in some sources. If Venezuela is excluded based on strict classification, only four countries in the list have Andes. • Brazil – Incorrect- The Andes do not pass through Brazil.
• Paraguay – incorrect- The Andes do not extend into Paraguay. Thus, only four of the listed countries (Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela*) have Andes Mountains depending on the strictness of inclusion.

Sources-

• National Geographic Atlas
• Britannica – Andes Mountain Range
• CIA World Factbook

43. Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(d) None

• Lake Tanganyika – incorrect- Although it lies near the Equator, the Equator passes north of the lake, not through it.
• Lake Tonlé Sap – incorrect- Located in Cambodia, which lies entirely north of the Equator.
• Patos Lagoon – incorrect- Located in southern Brazil, well south of the Equator. Hence, none of the listed water bodies are intersected by the Equator.

Sources-

• UN Geospatial Data Repository
• National Geographic Atlas
• CIA World Factbook – Country Geography Sections

44. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(d) I, II and III

• Statement I – Correct: India contributes over 75% of global turmeric production and is the largest exporter as per APEDA and Spices Board data.
• Statement II – Correct: India grows over 30 registered varieties of turmeric including Lakadong, Alleppey, Erode, Salem, etc.
• Statement III – Correct: Major producing states include Telangana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.

Sources-

• APEDA Export Statistics 2022–23
• Spices Board of India
• ICAR – Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR)

45. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) I, II and III (d) II and III only

Answer-

(c) I, II and III

• Statement I – Correct: The rock strata on Brazil’s eastern coast and West Africa’s western coast match in age and composition, supporting the idea that these continents were once joined.
• Statement II – Correct: Geological studies suggest that gold deposits in Ghana may have originated from formations in the Brazilian plateau, consistent with pre-drift proximity.
• Statement III – Correct: The Gondwana sedimentary system found in India has identical formations in South America, Africa, Australia, Antarctica, and Madagascar, strongly supporting continental drift.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography
• Alfred Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory
• Geological Society of India Reports

46. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer-

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

• Statement I – Correct: Dust concentration is higher in subtropical and temperate zones due to arid and semi-arid climates, sparse vegetation, and strong surface winds (e.g., Sahara, Thar).
• Statement II – Incorrect: These regions have more dry winds, not less — particularly trade winds and westerlies, which contribute to dust storms and particle suspension.
• Therefore, Statement I is true, but Statement II is factually incorrect.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography
• WMO – Atmospheric Aerosols and Dust Reports
• IPCC Climate and Dust Interaction Papers

47. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer-

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

• Statement I – Correct: In January, isotherms in the Northern Hemisphere show a distinct bend — toward the equator over landmasses (colder air) and toward the poles over oceans (warmer air).
• Statement II – Correct: Due to high specific heat capacity, oceans retain heat longer, so air above oceans in January is warmer than over nearby land.
• Since differential heating of land and ocean causes this bending of isotherms, Statement II explains Statement I.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography
• Physical Geography – Savindra Singh
• NOAA Global Climate Patterns

48. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer-

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• Statement I – Correct: Chalk is highly permeable due to its porosity; clay is impermeable as it restricts water movement.
• Statement II – Correct: Chalk is porous, allowing water to pass through easily, which explains why it's permeable.
• Statement III – Incorrect: Clay is very low in permeability, but it is still porous, just with very small pore spaces.
• Thus, only Statement II is correct, and it explains Statement I.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography
• British Geological Survey – Permeability of Rocks
• USGS – Groundwater and Rock Porosity

49. Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature.
III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) I, II and III (d) II and III only

Answer-

(d) II and III only

• Statement I – Incorrect : While it is true that average global temperature would fall without the atmosphere, the statement is exaggerated. Some areas may remain above freezing due to solar exposure.
• Statement II – Correct : The atmosphere absorbs and retains heat, maintaining Earth’s average surface temperature.
• Statement III – Correct : Greenhouse gases like CO₂ and CH₄ are highly effective at trapping infrared radiation, crucial for the greenhouse effect. Hence, only Statements II and III are fully accurate.

Sources-

• NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography
• NASA Earth Science – Greenhouse Effect
• IPCC Sixth Assessment Report

50. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(c) Both I and II

• Statement I – Correct: Rashtriya Gokul Mission supports small and marginal farmers who own the majority of low-yielding indigenous cattle, helping uplift rural livelihoods.
• Statement II – Correct: Launched in 2014 by the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, the mission focuses on scientific breeding, conservation, and development of indigenous bovine breeds, including both cattle and buffaloes.

Sources

• Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying – Rashtriya Gokul Mission Guidelines
• PIB – Rashtriya Gokul Mission Overview
• Livestock Census Reports

51. Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(d) I, II and III

• Statement I – Not correct: Panchayats at the intermediate level (Block level) are not mandated in states with populations less than 20 lakhs (e.g., Goa, Sikkim).
• Statement II – Not correct: The minimum age to contest Panchayat elections is 21 years, not 30.
• Statement III – Not correct: It is the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who constitutes the State Finance Commission under Article 243-I of the Constitution to review Panchayat finances.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Article 243B, 243C, 243I
• Ministry of Panchayati Raj
• NCERT Indian Polity – Class XI & Laxmikanth

52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) I only

Answer-

(c) I and IV

• Statement I – Correct : As of January 2025, BIMSTEC has seven members – Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan.
• Statement II – Incorrect : BIMSTEC was established in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration, not the Dhaka Declaration of 1999.
• Statement III – Incorrect : The original founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. Nepal joined in 2004, so it was not a founding member.
• Statement IV – Correct : As per the 2022 reorganization, India leads the "Security" pillar, under which tourism is a designated subsector led by India. Hence, only Statements I and IV are correct.

Sources-

• BIMSTEC Official Website – bimstec.org
• MEA India – BIMSTEC Sectoral Leadership (2022)
• Bangkok Declaration, 1997

53. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of the 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?

I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) II and IV only (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I and III only

Answer-

(c) II, III and IV

• The Jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
• Other members include: Chief Justice of India , Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of the largest opposition party if LoP is not recognized)
• The President of India is not a member of the Jury.

Sources-

• Ministry of Culture – Gandhi Peace Prize Guidelines
• PIB Press Release on Jury Composition (latest: 2021, 2023)
• Gandhi Peace Prize Official Website

54. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation.

Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I, II and III (b) I and III only (c) I only (d) I and II only

Answer-

(d) I and II only

• Statement I – Correct: GAGAN is India’s SBAS (Satellite-Based Augmentation System) developed jointly by ISRO and AAI. It enhances GPS signal accuracy and integrity, critical for navigation.
• Statement II – Correct: GAGAN enables more precise and safe air traffic management, especially for satellite-based landing procedures and en-route guidance.
• Statement III – Incorrect: While GAGAN is primarily designed for aviation, it has applications in other sectors like railways, marine, agriculture, and surveying. Hence, only I and II are correct.

Sources-

• ISRO – GAGAN Overview
• Airports Authority of India (AAI) – GAGAN Project
• Ministry of Civil Aviation

55. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(a) I only

• Statement I – Correct : The AI Action Summit 2025 in Paris was co-chaired by India and France, and it followed up on the Bletchley Park Summit (UK, 2023) and Seoul Summit (2024), focusing on global AI governance.
• Statement II – Incorrect : Although many countries participated, the US and UK did not officially sign the Declaration on Inclusive and Sustainable AI due to pending internal consultations. Hence, only Statement I is correct.

Sources-

• French Government Press Release – AI Summit 2025
• MEA India – India-France Joint Declaration
• Summit Records – Bletchley, Seoul, and Paris AI Summits

56. Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?


(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer-

(d) All the four

• Pair I – Correct : The UN General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer, following a proposal by India in 2024.
• Pair II – Correct : 2027 has been announced as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism, to promote sustainability in the tourism sector.
• Pair III – Correct : The International Year of Peace and Trust has been redeclared for 2025, following renewed global consensus on peace-building. Earlier, it was observed in 2021.
• Pair IV – Correct : The UNGA has designated 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence. Hence, all four pairs are correctly matched.

Sources-

• UNGA Resolutions (2024–25 Archive)
• MEA India – Statements on UN Initiatives
• UN International Year Portal

57. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I only

Answer-

(a) I and II

• Statement I – Correct : The 16th BRICS Summit (2024) was indeed held in Kazan, Russia, under Russia's Chairship.
• Statement II – Correct : In a recent expansion, Indonesia has been inducted as a full member of BRICS, effective late 2024.
• Statement III – Incorrect : The official theme for the 16th BRICS Summit was "BRICS: Strengthening Global Multilateralism for Equitable Development", not the statement given. Hence, Statements I and II are correct.

Sources-

• BRICS Russia 2024 Official Website • MEA India – BRICS Official Press Briefings • Reuters, The Hindu – Reports on BRICS Expansion 2024

58. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer-

(a) III only

• Statement I – Incorrect: The Lokpal Act, 2013 covers public servants, including those posted outside India.
• Statement II – Incorrect: While MPs and MLAs cannot be members, the Chairperson need not be only a (retired) Chief Justice of India; it can also be an eminent person with integrity and 25+ years in public affairs, law, administration, etc.
• Statement III – Correct: As per Section 3(2) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the minimum age requirement for Chairperson or Member is 45 years.
• Statement IV – Incorrect: The Lokpal can inquire into allegations against the sitting Prime Minister, with certain procedural restrictions (e.g., approval by full bench, in-camera proceedings, etc.).

Sources-

• Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 – Ministry of Law and Justice
• PRS India – Lokpal Overview
• Official Gazette Notifications

59. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(a) I only

• Statement I – Correct : The first Kho Kho World Cup was held in Delhi, India, as part of India’s efforts to promote indigenous sports globally.
• Statement II – Incorrect : The men’s final score was not 78–40, and Nepal was not the runner-up in the men’s category.
• Statement III – Incorrect : In the women’s category, while India won, Nepal was not the finalist, and the score did not match the given data. Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Sources-

• Press Information Bureau (PIB) – Jan 2024
• Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports Reports
• The Hindu & Times of India – Sports Archives

60. Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(b) II only

• Statement I – Incorrect: The 45th Chess Olympiad has not yet been held. As of now, the 44th Olympiad was held in 2022 in Chennai. Also, Gukesh D became the youngest-ever World Championship contender in 2024 (via Candidates Tournament), but did not defeat Ian Nepomniachtchi in an Olympiad final.
• Statement II – Correct: Abhimanyu Mishra of the USA became the youngest Grandmaster in history at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days in 2021, surpassing the record held by Sergey Karjakin.

Sources-

• FIDE Official Website
• ESPN Chess Archives (2021–2024)
• The Hindu – Sports Section (April 2024)

61. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer-

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

• Statement I – Correct: Rare earth elements such as europium, yttrium, and terbium are used in TV screens and computer monitors, particularly in display technologies.
• Statement II – Correct: These elements exhibit phosphorescent properties, meaning they can emit visible light after being energized—used in fluorescent and LED displays.
• Explanation link: The use of rare earths in screens is because of their phosphorescent properties, so Statement II explains Statement I.

Sources-

• USGS – Rare Earth Elements Overview
• Indian Rare Earths Ltd (IREL)
• Ministry of Mines – Critical Minerals Report

62. Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028.
II. Kavach is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. Kavach system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(a) I and II only

• Statement I – Not correct: The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to create a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028.
• Statement II – Not correct: Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection system, not in collaboration with Germany. It was developed by Indian Railways in partnership with Indian firms like BEL and Medha.
• Statement III – Correct: Kavach uses RFID tags on tracks to communicate with the onboard equipment to ensure automatic braking and train protection.

Sources-

• Ministry of Railways – National Rail Plan Document
• PIB – Kavach: Indigenous ATP System
• Indian Railways Annual Report 2023–24

63. Consider the following space missions:

I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(c) All the three

• Axiom-4 – correct- A commercial spaceflight mission to the International Space Station (ISS), where astronauts conduct microgravity experiments in life sciences, material sciences, etc.
• SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) – correct- An ISRO mission designed to test autonomous docking in space, which includes support for microgravity environment-based tests and future in-orbit servicing.
• Gaganyaan – correct- India’s first human spaceflight mission, which aims to carry out a suite of microgravity experiments during the mission. All three missions explicitly support or enable microgravity research.

Sources-

• ISRO – Gaganyaan & SpaDeX Press Releases
• NASA & Axiom Space – Axiom-4 Mission Overview
• PIB – Microgravity Experiments in Indian Human Spaceflight Programme

64. With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type – Description
I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(b) Only two

• Pair I – Correct: Dornier-228, manufactured by HAL, is used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol, surveillance, and reconnaissance.
• Pair II – Incorrect: IL-76 is a heavy military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft. It is used for transporting troops and equipment.
• Pair III – Correct: C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for strategic and tactical airlift missions.

Sources-

• Indian Air Force Official Website
• HAL India – Dornier Overview
• Boeing – C-17 Factsheet
• Rosoboronexport – IL-76 Specifications

65. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer-

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodideCloud seeding, the artificial process of inducing rainfall, is commonly done using silver iodide (AgI) and potassium iodide (KI). These substances act as nuclei around which moisture condenses, leading to cloud formation and precipitation. It is used for weather modification and to reduce air pollution by clearing particulate matter.

Sources-

• IMD (India Meteorological Department)
• WMO – Cloud Seeding Guidelines
• NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography

66. Consider the following statements with regard to the pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(a) I only

• Statement I – Correct: The President’s pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review, especially in cases of arbitrariness, mala fide intent, or procedural lapses, as held by the Supreme Court in Kehar Singh (1989) and Epuru Sudhakar (2006).
• Statement II – Incorrect: As per Article 74, the President is bound to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The President cannot exercise pardoning power independently.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Article 72 & Article 74
• Supreme Court Cases: Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989), Epuru Sudhakar v. Govt. of A.P. (2006)
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity

67. Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) I, II and III (c) I and III only (d) None of the above

Answer-

(c) I and III only

• Statement I – Correct: As per Article 94 of the Constitution, the Speaker continues in office even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha until just before the first meeting of the newly constituted House.
• Statement II – Incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate that a Speaker must resign from their political party. However, by convention, the Speaker is expected to act impartially.
• Statement III – Correct: The Speaker can be removed by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an absolute majority (i.e., majority of all the then members) with 14 days' prior notice, as per Article 94.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Articles 93 & 94
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity
• Lok Sabha Secretariat Rules

68. Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(d) Neither I nor II

• Statement I – Incorrect: Under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the decision on disqualification of a member lies with the Speaker/Chairman of the House, not the President, as clarified by the 91st Amendment and upheld in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992).
• Statement II – Incorrect: The 10th Schedule of the Constitution, inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985), explicitly mentions the term ‘political party’ multiple times in the context of defection.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – 10th Schedule
• Kihoto Hollohan Case (1992)
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity (Chapter on Anti-Defection Law)

69. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer-

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

• Statement I – Incorrect: As per the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), State Governments are empowered to make rules regarding minor minerals, including grant of concessions, since these fall under their jurisdiction.
• Statement II – Correct: The Central Government has the power to declare a mineral as a 'minor mineral' through notification under Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act.

Sources-

• MMDR Act, 1957 – Section 3(e) and Section 15
• Ministry of Mines – Policy Framework on Minor Minerals
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity, Economic Development Chapter

70. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer-

(a) The European Union

The European Union (EU) enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) in 2024 as part of the European Green Deal. It aims to restore at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas by 2030 and all degraded ecosystems by 2050, addressing both climate change and biodiversity loss. It includes legally binding restoration targets for various ecosystems.

Sources-

• European Commission – Nature Restoration Law Fact Sheet
• EU Parliament Press Release – July 2024
• UN Biodiversity Updates

71. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores.

The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(d) I, II and III

• Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts = ₹80,000 – ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crores Correct
• Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings). Since borrowings are ₹10,000 crores, the fiscal deficit = ₹10,000 crores Correct
• Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹10,000 – ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crores Correct• Indian Budgetary Terminologies – Ministry of Finance

Sources-

• NCERT Class XII – Indian Economic Development
• Economic Survey of India

72. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect:

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer-

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal (ship-rail-road) transport network designed to move freight between India, Iran, Central Asia, Russia, and Europe. It connects Mumbai port to Bandar Abbas (Iran), and then through Iran, the Caspian Sea, and Russia, it reaches Europe, enhancing connectivity and trade.

Sources-

• INSTC Official Framework Agreement (2000)
• Ministry of External Affairs – India
• Observer Research Foundation (ORF) – INSTC Analysis

73. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer-

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

• Statement I – Incorrect: The United States is the largest ethanol producer in the world, followed by Brazil. Therefore, Brazil does not produce more ethanol than the U.S.
• Statement II – Correct: The U.S. primarily uses corn for ethanol production, while Brazil uses sugarcane, which is more efficient in terms of energy yield per hectare.
• Thus, only Statement II is correct.

Sources-

• U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA)
• International Energy Agency (IEA) Biofuels Reports
• UN FAO Bioenergy Statistics

74. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(c) Both I and II

• Statement I – Correct : The World Bank and IPCC warn that Peninsular India is highly vulnerable to multiple climate risks, including floods, tropical cyclones, and droughts, especially due to warming oceans and monsoon disruptions.
• Statement II – Correct : A wet-bulb temperature of 35 °C is considered a human survivability threshold, beyond which perspiration is ineffective, threatening survival of humans and animals. Thus, both statements reflect different but valid implications of extreme wet-bulb temperature and climate change risks.

Sources-

• World Bank – Climate Investment Opportunities in India’s Cooling Sector (2022)
• IPCC Sixth Assessment Report – South Asia
• Nature – Wet-Bulb Temperature and Heat Stress Studies

75. A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts.

The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) ₹48,500 crores (b) ₹51,500 crores (c) ₹58,500 crores (d) None of the above

Answer-

(a) ₹48,500 crores

• Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹50,000 – ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores Correct
• Non-debt capital receipts are not directly used in calculating primary deficit, which purely looks at fiscal deficit minus interest obligations.• Indian Budget Glossary – Ministry of Finance

Sources-

• NCERT Class XII – Indian Economic Development
• Economic Survey of India

76. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV

Answer-

(c) I, III and IV

• Statement I – Correct: The 15th Finance Commission recommended ₹4,800 crores as sector-specific grants for education to incentivize improved educational outcomes.
• Statement II – Incorrect: The Commission recommended 41% (not 45%) of the net proceeds of Union taxes to be shared with the States.
• Statement III – Correct: It proposed ₹45,000 crores as performance-based incentives for agricultural sector reforms.
• Statement IV – Correct: The tax effort criterion was reintroduced to reward States showing improved tax revenue mobilization performance.

Sources-

• 15th Finance Commission Final Report (2021–26)
• Ministry of Finance Summary Document
• PRS Legislative Research – FC Recommendations Brief

77. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(c) I and III only

• Statement I – Correct: The IBRD, part of the World Bank Group, provides loans, guarantees, and technical assistance to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
• Statement II – Incorrect: IBRD does not work single-handedly; it collaborates with other World Bank Group institutions like IDA, IFC, and MIGA in poverty reduction and development initiatives.
• Statement III – Correct: The IBRD was established in 1944, primarily to support the reconstruction of Europe after World War II, before shifting its focus to development.

Sources-

• World Bank Official Website – IBRD Overview
• IMF & World Bank Historical Background
• NCERT & Ramesh Singh – Indian Economy

78. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) I and II (c) I and III (d) III only

Answer-

(a) I only

• Statement I – Correct : RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) enables instantaneous settlement of large-value transactions, while NEFT operates in batch mode, causing some delay.
• Statement II – Incorrect : As per RBI guidelines, inward RTGS and NEFT transactions are not chargeable to customers.
• Statement III – Incorrect : Since December 2020, RTGS is available 24x7, including on holidays. Earlier, it had restricted hours, but that is no longer the case. Hence, only Statement I is correct.

Sources-

• RBI – FAQs on RTGS and NEFT
• RBI Circular: RTGS 24x7 Availability (Dec 2020)
• NPCI & Leading Bank Websites (SBI, HDFC)

79. Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates
II. France III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

(a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All the five

Answer-

(b) Only three

• UAE – Correct: UPI payments are live via Mashreq Bank in select locations.
• France – Correct: UPI enabled via Lyra Network, especially for tourism-based QR payments at landmarks.
• Singapore – Correct: UPI integrated through PayNow-UPI linkage.
• Germany – Incorrect: As of now, no official UPI merchant payment integration exists.
• Bangladesh – Incorrect: UPI is not yet operational for merchant transactions in Bangladesh. Hence, only three countries from the list accept international UPI merchant payments.

Sources-

• NPCI International Official Press Releases
• RBI – Cross-border UPI Framework
• Ministry of External Affairs Briefings
• Economic Times & LiveMint – UPI Global Reach Reports

80. Consider the following statements about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakh skilled manpower through fresh skilling and upskilling under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(d) I, II and III

• Statement I – Correct: The scheme, launched in February 2024, targets the installation of 1 crore residential rooftop solar systems, providing free electricity up to 300 units/month.
• Statement II – Correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is actively engaged in training people at the grassroots for installation, O&M of rooftop systems.
• Statement III – Correct: The scheme includes a capacity building component that targets over 3 lakh personnel through fresh skilling and upskilling programs.

Sources-

• MNRE Official Website – PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana Guidelines
• PIB Press Release – February 2024
• Press Information from Skill India Mission & NSDC

81. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(c) I and III only

• Statement I – Correct: As per Article 123, the President can promulgate Ordinances that have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, and hence can amend existing Central Acts.
• Statement II – Incorrect: An Ordinance is subject to the limitations of the Constitution. Like any law, it cannot abridge Fundamental Rights beyond permissible constitutional limits (as ruled in RC Cooper and AK Gopalan cases).
• Statement III – Correct: An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect, i.e., it can be enforced from a back date, subject to judicial review.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Article 123
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity, Chapter on Ordinances
• Supreme Court rulings: RC Cooper Case, AK Gopalan Case

82. Consider the following pairs

State : Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(c) All the three

• Pair I – Correct: Arunachal Pradesh’s capital Itanagar is named after Ita Fort (“Ita” means brick in Assamese). It has two national parks: Namdapha and Mouling.
• Pair II – Correct: Nagaland became a full-fledged state in 1963 via the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962.
• Pair III – Correct: Tripura was a Part ‘C’ State, became a Union Territory in 1956, and a State in 1972 through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Sources-

• NCERT Class 12 – Indian Constitution at Work
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity (State Reorganization, NE States)
• MoEFCC – Protected Area Database
• Government of Arunachal Pradesh Portal

83. With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(a) Only one

• Inter-State Council – Yes, established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India to promote coordination between States and the Union.
• National Security Council – No, it was established in 1998 by an executive order, not through the Constitution.
• Zonal Councils – No, established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which is a statutory (not constitutional) provision. Hence, only the Inter-State Council was created as per the Constitution.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Article 263
• Ministry of Home Affairs – Zonal Councils
• National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) – Official Portal

84. Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(a) I only

• Statement I – Correct: The Constitution explicitly provides in certain articles (e.g., Article 163(2), Article 371A, 371F, Sixth Schedule provisions) that the Governor may act in his/her discretion in specific matters, such as in tribal areas or while reserving a bill for the President.
• Statement II – Incorrect: The President cannot suo motu reserve a state bill. Only the Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for the President’s consideration under Article 200. The President acts only upon such a reference.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Articles 163, 200, 371A, Sixth Schedule
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity, Chapter on Governor
• SC rulings on Governor’s discretion

85. Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India – Stated under

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(c) All the three

• Pair I – Correct: Article 50 under the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) directs the separation of the judiciary from the executive in public services of the State.
• Pair II – Correct: Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(f)) requires citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• Pair III – Correct: Article 24, under Fundamental Rights (Part III), prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous work.

Sources-

• Constitution of India – Articles 24, 50, 51A(f)
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity
• Ministry of Law & Justice – Bare Act of Constitution

86. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(d) Neither I nor II

• Statement I – Incorrect: When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government does not lose its executive power. Instead, administration continues with the Governor having special responsibilities and powers, but not replaced by a local body.
• Statement II – Incorrect: The Union Government does not take over administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule. The Governor has special powers and submits an annual report to the President, but administration remains with the State, not the Centre.

Sources-

• Constitution of India – Fifth Schedule
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity, Chapter on Scheduled and Tribal Areas
• Ministry of Tribal Affairs – Fifth Schedule Provisions

87. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization – Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(d) None

• Pair I – Incorrect: National Automotive Board (NAB) functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• Pair II – Incorrect: Coir Board is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not Ministry of Heavy Industries.
• Pair III – Incorrect: National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) was a joint initiative of Ministry of Commerce & Industry and India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO)—not MSME Ministry.

Sources-

• Ministry of Heavy Industries – NAB Overview
• Ministry of MSME – Coir Board Portal
• Ministry of Commerce & Industry – Trade Bodies List
• Laxmikanth – Governance Bodies Appendix

88. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(a) I and II onlyAs per Article 368(2) of the Constitution, any amendment that seeks to make changes to:
• List I (Union List) of the Seventh Schedule
• Extent of executive power of states requires ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
• Conditions of the Governor’s office are not included in the list requiring state ratification. Hence, only I and II require state ratification.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Article 368(2)
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity, Chapter on Amendment of the Constitution
• Ministry of Law and Justice – Constitutional Amendments Summary

89. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

Answer-

(d) I, II and III

• Statement I – Correct: As per Article 361(1) of the Constitution, the Governor is not answerable to any court for actions taken in exercise of official duties.
• Statement II – Correct: Under Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against a Governor while in office.
• Statement III – Correct: Under Article 194(2), MLAs are protected for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature—they enjoy parliamentary privileges similar to MPs under Article 105.

Sources-

• Indian Constitution – Articles 361(1), 361(2), and 194(2)
• Laxmikanth – Indian Polity, Chapters on Governor and State Legislature
• Supreme Court Interpretations on Legislative Privileges

90. Consider the following activities:

1. Production of crude oil
2. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
3. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
4. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) in our country?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

Answer-

(b) Only two

• PNGRB, established under the PNGRB Act, 2006, regulates: Marketing and sale of petroleum products (like CNG, PNG, etc.) Storage and distribution via pipelines and city gas distribution networks
• It does not regulate: Production of crude oil or natural gas – these are regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas and DGH (Directorate General of Hydrocarbons) Refining is also outside PNGRB’s purview Thus, only two activities are regulated by PNGRB.

Sources-

• PNGRB Act, 2006 – Official Document
• PNGRB Website – Functions and Regulatory Scope
• Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas FAQs

91. "Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of:

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer-

(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

• Mahatma Gandhi made the famous remark "Sedition has become my religion" during his trial in 1930 after he violated the Salt Law at Dandi, as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• In his court statement, Gandhi asserted the moral duty of opposing unjust laws, and if that meant being seditious, then “sedition became his religion.”
• The trial was a defining moment in India's freedom struggle

Sources-

• Collected Works of Mahatma Gandhi
• NCERT – Modern India
• Gandhi’s 1930 Trial Speech (Bombay Chronicle Archives)

92. The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:

(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold

Answer-

(c) bronze

• The ‘Dancing Girl’ is one of the most iconic artifacts of the Indus Valley Civilization, discovered at Mohenjo-daro.
• It is a bronze sculpture, about 10.5 cm tall, representing a young girl in a dancing posture.
• The statue demonstrates advanced metal casting techniques using the lost-wax process, indicating the high level of craftsmanship in the Harappan culture.

Sources-

• NCERT Class VI – Our Pasts
• ASI (Archaeological Survey of India)
• Indian Museum, Kolkata – Artifact Catalog

93. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of the Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah

Answer-

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

• After the Chauri Chaura incident (1922), where a violent mob set fire to a police station killing 22 policemen, over 200 people were arrested.
• Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, a noted lawyer and freedom fighter, along with Krishna Kant, provided legal defence for the accused during the high-profile trial.
• Due to their efforts, most of the accused were acquitted, and several death sentences were commuted.

Sources-

• NCERT – Modern India
• India’s Struggle for Independence by Bipan Chandra
• The Hindu – Archives on Chauri Chaura Trials

94. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer-

(a) The Poona Pact

• The Poona Pact (1932) was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar following Gandhi’s opposition to separate electorates for Depressed Classes as recommended in the Communal Award.
• Following the Pact, Gandhi intensified his efforts to eradicate untouchability and launched a nationwide campaign for the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ (children of God).
• He also started the Harijan Sevak Sangh and published the ‘Harijan’ weekly journal to promote social reform.

Sources-

• NCERT – Modern India
• India’s Struggle for Independence – Bipan Chandra
• Collected Works of Mahatma Gandhi – Vol. 59

95. Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(c) All the three

• Papaya – Native to tropical America, introduced by the Portuguese to India during the colonial period.
• Pineapple – Also from South America, brought to India by the Portuguese, now widely cultivated.
• Guava – Though the exact date is debated, historical and botanical sources attribute its introduction to the Portuguese in the 16th–17th century. Thus, all three fruits were introduced to India by the Portuguese.

Sources-

• KT Achaya – A Historical Companion to Indian Food
• National Horticulture Board – Fruit Origin Data
• NCERT – Themes in Indian History Part II

96. Consider the following countries:

1. United Kingdom
2. Denmark
3. New Zealand
4. Australia
5. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five (b) Only four (c) Only three (d) Only two

Answer-

(d) Only two

• Australia – Has 5 time zones, including daylight saving variations.
• Brazil – Has 4 standard time zones, but historically had 4+ (some abolished in 2008 and revised in 2013). It is often cited with 4 zones.
• United Kingdom – Uses a single time zone (GMT/BST), though overseas territories may differ, but they are not part of the mainland time zone count.
• Denmark – Uses one time zone (CET); Greenland has different time zones but is treated separately.
• New Zealand – Has 2 time zones (mainland and the Chatham Islands). Thus, only Australia and Brazil have more than four time zones (depending on classification).

Sources-

• TimeAndDate.com – Time Zone Data
• World Atlas – Country Time Zone Comparisons
• CIA World Factbook

97. Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answer-

(a) I only

• Statement I – Correct: Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are geographically close across the Bering Strait, but they lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line. So, when people are waking up in the morning, it can indeed be different days in each city—e.g., Tuesday in Anadyr and Monday in Nome.
• Statement II – Incorrect: The statement reverses the date difference. When it is Monday in Nome, it is Tuesday in Anadyr, not the other way around. Anadyr is ahead in time. Hence, only Statement I is correct.

Sources-

• TimeAndDate.com – Time Zone Converter (Anadyr vs Nome)
• International Date Line Concept – NCERT Geography
• CIA World Factbook – Russia and USA Time Zones

98. Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer-

(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

• The Self-Respect Movement was founded in 1925 by Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Tamil Nadu.
• Its objective was to promote rationalism, self-respect, gender equality, and the eradication of caste-based discrimination, particularly against the non-Brahmin population.
• Periyar strongly opposed religious orthodoxy and promoted social justice and empowerment of backward classes.

Sources-

• NCERT – Themes in Indian History Part III • India’s Struggle for Independence – Bipan Chandra • Tamil Nadu State Board – Modern Indian History

99. Consider the following pairs:

Country – Resource-rich in
I. Botswana – Diamond
II. Chile – Lithium
III. Indonesia – Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(c) All the three

• Botswana – Diamonds : One of the world’s largest producers of gem-quality diamonds, particularly through Debswana (a De Beers partnership).
• Chile – Lithium : World’s second-largest producer of lithium, due to its vast salt flats (Salar de Atacama).
• Indonesia – Nickel : Holds the world’s largest nickel reserves and is the top producer, crucial for EV batteries and stainless steel.

Sources-

• USGS Mineral Commodity Summaries 2024
• World Bank – Mineral Resources Database
• The Economist & Reuters – Country Mining Profiles

100. Consider the following pairs:

Region – Country
1. Mallorca : Italy
2. Normandy : Spain
3. Sardinia : France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

Answer-

(d) None

• Mallorca – Italy : Incorrect. Mallorca is part of the Balearic Islands in Spain, not Italy.
• Normandy – Spain : Incorrect. Normandy is a historic region in northern France, not Spain.
• Sardinia – France : Incorrect. Sardinia is an autonomous region of Italy, not France. Thus, none of the three pairs are correctly matched.

Sources-

• National Geographic – European Geography
• CIA World Factbook – Country Profiles
• Official Tourism Boards of France, Spain & Italy